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Double taxation means that both


A) wage income and interest income are taxed, which is currently the case in the United States.
B) wage income and interest income are taxed, which is not currently the case in the United States.
C) the profits of corporations and the dividends shareholders receive are taxed, which is currently the case in the United States.
D) the profits of corporations and the dividends shareholders receive are taxed, which is not currently the case in the United States.

E) A) and C)
F) All of the above

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Policies that reduce the incentive for households to save include


A) means-testing.
B) College and university financial aid administration.
C) inheritance taxes.
D) All of the above.

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

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What is the political business cycle and how does it relate to whether the central bank should have discretion or use a rule?

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The political business cycle describes t...

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Many studies indicate changes in monetary policy have most of their effect on aggregate demand about six months after the change is made.

A) True
B) False

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An opponent of monetary policy decisions by rule would point to which of the following as support of his case?


A) time inconsistency of policy
B) flexibility to confront unforeseen circumstances
C) political business cycle
D) the ability to craft rules that account for all possible contingencies in advance

E) A) and B)
F) A) and C)

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A year ago a country reduced the tax rate on all interest income from 20% to 10%. During the year private saving was $500 billion as compared to $400 billion the year before the tax reform. Taxes on interest income fell by $10 billion. Assuming no other changes in income, or government revenues or spending, which of the following is correct?


A) the substitution effect was larger than the income effect; national saving rose
B) the substitution effect was larger than the income effect; national saving fell
C) the income effect was larger than the substitution effect; national saving rose
D) the income effect was larger than the substitution effect; national saving fell

E) B) and C)
F) All of the above

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Economists believe that a little bit of inflation may be a good thing. What are the potential benefits of inflation?

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First, economists believe that inflation...

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Which of the programs below would not transfer wealth from young to old generations?


A) Taxes are reduced as a result of cutting expenditures on education.
B) Taxes are raised to improve government infrastructure such as roads and bridges.
C) Taxes are raised to provide more generous Social Security benefits.
D) Taxes are raised to provide more generous Medicare benefits.

E) None of the above
F) A) and B)

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Why is it desirable, if possible, to use policy to offset the effects of a decrease in aggregate demand?

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Because a decrease i...

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Some economists argue that since inflation


A) raises the real value of fixed nominal wages, a little inflation may make it easier for labor markets to adjust.
B) raises the real value of fixed nominal wages, a little inflation may make it harder for labor markets to adjust.
C) reduces the real value of fixed nominal wages, a little inflation may make it easier for labor markets to adjust.
D) reduces the real value of fixed nominal wages, a little inflation may make it harder for labor markets to adjust.

E) B) and C)
F) A) and D)

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Suppose a country has a real growth rate of 3%. Government spending is 75 billion units of currency and its tax revenues are 60 billion units of currency. The current national debt is 300 billion units of currency. At what inflation rate will its debt-to-income ratio remain unchanged?

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Government spending exceeds tax revenues...

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Assuming that the substitution effect is large relative to the income effect, tax reform designed to increase saving


A) increases the interest rate and decreases spending on capital goods.
B) increases the interest rate and increases spending on capital goods.
C) decreases the interest rate and increases spending on capital goods.
D) decreases the interest rate and decreases spending on capital goods.

E) C) and D)
F) A) and D)

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Real interest rates


A) cannot be negative.
B) can be negative only if inflation is negative.
C) can be negative only if inflation is zero.
D) can be negative only if inflation is greater than zero.

E) C) and D)
F) All of the above

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A decrease in the tax rate is more likely to increase the standard of living if the income effect of a change in the interest rate is


A) small and an increase in private saving tends to have a small impact on the capital stock.
B) small and an increase in private saving tends to have a large impact on the capital stock.
C) large and an increase in private saving tends to have a small impact on the capital stock.
D) large and an increase in private saving tends to have a large impact on the capital stock.

E) All of the above
F) A) and B)

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Which part of the Federal Reserve determines monetary policy? How often does it meet? What does it set a target for?

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The Federal Open Mar...

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A balanced budget would require that when real GDP was growing rapidly,


A) the government raise taxes or cut expenditures. This would increase the magnitude of economic fluctuations.
B) the government raise taxes or cut expenditures. This would decrease the magnitude of economic fluctuations.
C) the government cut taxes or raise expenditures. This would increase the magnitude of economic fluctuations.
D) the government cut taxes or raise expenditures. This would decrease the magnitude of economic fluctuations.

E) C) and D)
F) None of the above

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Suppose that the central bank must follow a rule that requires it to increase the money supply when the price level falls and decrease the money supply when the price level rises. If the economy starts from long-run equilibrium and aggregate supply shifts left, the central bank must


A) decrease the money supply, which will move output back towards its long-run level.
B) decrease the money supply, which will move output farther from its long-run level.
C) increase the money supply, which will move output back towards its long-run level.
D) increase the money supply, which will move output farther from its long-run level.

E) A) and B)
F) B) and D)

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At the end of 2012, the government had a debt of about $11.3 trillion. If during 2013 real GDP rose 2% and inflation was 2.2%, what is the largest deficit the government could have run without raising the debt-to-GDP ratio?


A) about $226.0 billion
B) about $248.6 billion
C) about $474.6 billion
D) about $561.8 billion

E) B) and C)
F) A) and D)

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If the public correctly perceives that the central bank will reduce inflation, then


A) the short-run Phillips curve shifts right, and the sacrifice ratio will be higher.
B) the short-run Phillips curve shifts right, and the sacrifice ratio will be lower.
C) the short-run Phillips curve shifts left, and the sacrifice ratio will be higher.
D) the short-run Phillips curve shifts left, and the sacrifice ratio will be lower.

E) All of the above
F) A) and B)

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Suppose that the central bank is required to follow a monetary policy rule to stabilize prices. If the economy starts at long-run equilibrium and then aggregate supply shifts right, the central bank would have to


A) increase the money supply, which causes output to move closer to its long-run equilibrium.
B) increase the money supply, which causes output to move farther from long-run equilibrium.
C) decrease the money supply, which causes output to move closer to its long-run equilibrium.
D) decrease the money supply, which causes output to move farther from long-run equilibrium.

E) None of the above
F) All of the above

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